MCAT Practice Test 100 MCQS PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, BIOLOGY, ENGLISH

This Test consists of sections: Biology, Physics and Chemistry. Each MCQ has four options (A, B, C, D). The answers are given for your hel...

This Test consists of sections: Biology, Physics and Chemistry.
Each MCQ has four options (A, B, C, D). The answers are given for your help. Below of these questions you can find answers all of these mcqs,

BIOLOGY

Q. 1. When food passes through alimentary canal, the proteins are digested in:

1. Mouth, stomach and duodenum
2. Stomach, pancreas and caecum
3. Stomach, duodenum and ileum
4. Duodenum, ileum and live

Q. 2. Which blood vessel carries absorbed food material from intestine to the liver?

1. Vena cava
2. Hepatic artery
3. Hepatic vein
4. Hepatic portal vein

Q. 3. Which two elements are needed for the production of chlorophyll:

1. Phosphorus and Sulfur
2. Chlorine and Copper
3. Magnesium and Iron
4. Calcium and Phosphorus

Q. 4. When a person faces an unexpected threat, which hormone is activated as a defensive response?

1. Cortisone
2. Androgens
3. Adrenaline
4. Nora-adrenaline

Q. 5. The information coded on the mRNA is decoded into:

1. Fats
2. Proteins
3. Amino acids
4. Carbohydrates

Q. 6. All of the following plants have a life history that includes alternation of generations, except:

1. Liverwort
2. Horsetail
3. Spirogyra
4. Moss

Q. 7. Milk produced initially by the mammary glands contains special lymph-like fluid that is called:

1. Amniotic fluid
2. Colostrum
3. Pleural fluid
4. Serum

Q. 8. If a man having blood group AB marries a woman who is heterozygous for blood group, what is the probability of their first child having blood group B?

1. 100 %
2. 50 %
3. 25 %
4. 0 %

Q. 9. The ‘Synapse’ is a:

1. Part of neuron
2. Part of axon
3. Chemical impulse
4. Gap between neurons

Q. 10. The under-secretion of para-thormone causes:

1. Decrease in blood phosphorus level
2. Decrease in blood calcium level
3. Increase in blood phosphorus level
4. Increase in blood calcium level

Q. 11. Which of following must be present in human’s diet to prevent thyroxin deficiency?

1. Iron
2. Calcium
3. Iodine
4. Phosphorus

Q. 12. The heart of, majority of reptiles, has

1. Three chambers
2. Four chambers
3. Six chambers
4. Five chambered

Q. 13. Which of the following glands is known as “master gland”?

1. Thyroid
2. Pituitary
3. Island of Langerhans
4. Adrenal

Q. 14. The sexual reproduction in Rhizopus is:

1. Anisogamous
2. Conjugation
3. Oogamous
4. Ogamous and anisogamous

Q. 15. If a person having Rh-negative blood is given Rh-positive blood by mistake, it will stimulate formation of:

1. Rh-antigens
2. Blood clots
3. Rh-antibodies
4. None of them

Q. 16. The breathing system of birds is efficient due to:

1. Gills
2. Trachea
3. Air sacs
4. Book lungs

Q. 17. Spiders can be distinguished from insects because it has

1. Two antennae
2. Eight legs
3. Jointed legs
4. Separated head, thorax and abdomen

Q. 18. Besides calcium, the mammalian’s skeleton also stores a huge amount of:

1. Phosphorus
2. Sulfur
3. Iron
4. Nitrogen

Q. 19. The pigment, in Blue-green algae, that distinguishes it from other the algae is:

1. Chlorophyll-a
2. Phycobillin
3. Chlorophyll-b
4. Xanthophylls

Q. 20. An example of discontinuous variation is reflected by :

1. Height
2. Intelligence
3. Blood group
4. Weight

Q. 21. Fly-traps in two pitcher plants ‘sundew and venus’ are similar in that they both

1. Are saprophyte
2. Trap insects
3. Are symbiotic
4. Lack chlorophyll

Q. 22. Which of following is mostly likely the result of large scale of destruction of forests?

1. Increase in air humidity
2. Decrease in floods
3. Increase in soil erosion
4. Decrease in carbon dioxide

Q. 23. The amount of lactic acid, in muscles, rises when they start lacking:

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxygen
3. Glucose
4. Hydrogen carbonate

Q. 24. The enzymes in pancreatic juice digest:

1. Carbohydrates and proteins only
2. Carbohydrates and proteins only
3. Fats and proteins only
4. Carbohydrates, Proteins and Fats

Q. 25. Which of the following addictive drug is, sometimes, injected for relief from a severe pain?

1. Heroin
2. Alcohol
3. Aspirin
4. Nicotine

Q. 26. The bacterial cells and virus particle, both have:

1. A cell membrane
2. Nuclear material
3. A cell wall
4. A slime layer

Q. 27. The percentage of arthropods in total animal kingdom is:

1. 85 %
2. 45 %
3. 75 %
4. 60 %

Q. 28. Uric-acid is a major nitrogenous waste-matter that is  formed by:

1. Earthworm
2. Grasshopper
3. Planaria
4. Man

Q. 29. The center that controls breathing, constriction and dilation of blood vessels; and heart-beating is located in:

1. Cerebellum
2. Pons
3. Medulla oblongata
4. Hypothalamus

Q. 30. Which one of the following fungi is poisonous?

1. Morchella
2. Amanita
3. Agaricus
4. Rhizopus

PHYSICS

Q. 31. The pages of the look are visible to us because they:

1. Absorb light
2. Emit light
3. Reflect light
4. Refract light

Q. 32. If a person throws a stone vertically upwards while sitting in a train moving with constant velocity, the stone will fall:

1. In his hand
2. Behind him
3. In front of him
4. Outside the train

Q. 33. A neutral body is rubbed and its charge becomes positive. It must have:

1. Gained protons
2. Gained neutrons
3. Gained electrons
4. Lost electrons

Q. 34. Angular momentum is defined as:

1. The dot product of position vector and linear momentum
2. The cross product of position vector and linear momentum
3. The simple product of position vector and linear momentum
4. The product of distance and linear momentum

Q. 35. A charged particle is placed in an electrical field E. If the charge on the particle is doubled, the force exerted on the particle by the field is:

1. Doubled
2. Halved
3. Quadrupled
4. Unchanged

Q. 36. What is the wavelength of the light in millimeter?

1. 5.4 x 10^-3
2. 5.4 x 10^-5
3. 5.4 x 10^-4
4. 5.4 x 10^-10

Q. 37. Elephants have large flat feet. It helps them, having heavy weight, in walking properly on ground and maintaining proper body posture by

1. Reducing ground friction on their feet
2. Reducing their pressure on ground
3. Increasing feet penetration into ground
4. None of the above

Q. 38. The second law of thermodynamic states that:

1. 100% conversion of mechanical work into heat is not possible
2. 100% efficient heat engine is not possible
3. 100% conversion of heat into mechanical work is not possible
4. None of these

Q. 39. The change in temperature of “20^oC” is equivalent to change in temperature on Kelvin scale of:

1. 0.9 K
2. 20 K
3. 11 K
4. 6.7 K

Q. 40. The force restraining an object’s motion on an inclined plane:

1. Is directed into the plane
2. May be friction
3. Is directed to sideways
4. Is always friction

Q. 41. A person, standing in an elevator which goes up with constant upward acceleration, exerts a push on the floor of elevator whose value:

1. Is always equal to his weight
2. Is always lesser than his weight
3. Is always greater than his weight
4. Is greater when his acceleration is than ‘g’

Q. 42. The magnetic field is produced by:

1. Moving protons
2. Stationary protons
3. Stationary electrons
4. Moving electrons

Q. 43. Slight gaps are intentionally left between blocks of a building for:

1. To drain water accumulated on the roof
2. To avoid cracks due to temperature impacts
3. To allow light to internal of room
4. None of them

Q. 44. If the distance between two bodies each 1 Kg is 1 meter, then the force of attraction between these two bodies is:

1. 9 x 10⁹ N
2. 3 x 10^-11 N
3. 6.67 x 10^-11 N
4. 8.8 x 10^-12 N

Q. 45. White light does not converge on a single point after passing through convex because of:

1. Chromatic aberration
2. Spherical aberration
3. Distortion
4. Both spherical and chromatic aberration

Q. 46. A pendulum of length L has a period T. If the period is doubled, the length of the pendulum is:

1. Doubled
2. Halved
3. Quadrupled
4. Increased by 

Q. 47. if volume of a given mass of a gas is doubled without changing its temperature, the density of the gas:

1. Is doubled
2. Remains unchanged
3. Is halved
4. Is reduced to 1/4 of the original value

Q. 48. How much average force should be applied to 2500 Kg car, having velocity of 30 m/s, in order to stop the in 15 seconds?

1. 1000 N
2. 6000 N
3. 5000 N
4. 8000 N

Q. 49. Graphite is used in the nuclear reactors for specific purpose that is it:

1. Absorb neutrons
2. Slow down neutrons
3. Absorb alpha particles
4. Slow down high speed electron

Q. 50. If velocity of 11 x 10³ m/s is needed to escape a rocket from gravitational pull, how much velocity will be needed to escape a cricket-ball?

1. 11 x 10⁶ m/s
2. 11 x 10⁵ m/s
3. 11 x 10⁴ m/s
4. 11 x 10³ m/s

Q. 51. A body is projected with high velocity at 45^o (angle) with ground, which falls after 15 seconds, its horizontal component of velocity during its motion will:

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain constant
4. First decrease then increase

Q. 52. Neutrons penetrate matter easily because they:

1. Occupy no more than one-tenth of the volume of the electrons
2. Are electrically neutral
3. Occupy no more than one-tenths of the volume of the protons
4. Have smaller mass than protons

Q. 53. The frequency of second’s pendulum is:

1. 2 Hertz
2. 0.5 Herts
3. 1 Hertz
4. 0.25 Herts

Q. 54. If tension in the string remains constant but the diameter of the sitting is doubled, what will be the effect on speed of transverse waves in the string?

1. Remains constant
2. Becomes double
3. Become half
4. Decreases four times

Q. 55. Pressure, exerted on a surface with some force, is

1. Directly proportion to the surface area
2. Inversely proportion to the surface area
3. Directly proportion to the force
4. None of them

Q. 56. The equation for Ampere law is:

1. µ_oI = Bπr
2. µ_oI = Bπr²
3. µ_oI = B2πr
4. µ_oI = Bπ²r²

Q. 57. A rate of change of angular momentum of a body is equivalent to:

1. Impulsive force
2. The applied torque
3. Applied force
4. Moment of inertia

Q. 58. Which of the following is equivalent to one Pascal of gas pressure?

1. 1 Kg.m²/s²
2. 1 Kg.m³/s²
3. 1 Kg/m.s²
4. 1 Kg.m/s

Q. 59. When a radio station is broadcasting a musical program, the antenna of its transmitter:

1. Radiates AF electromagnetic waves
2. Radiates longitudinal waves
3. Radiates RF electromagnetic waves
4. Radiates AF longitudinal waves

Q. 60. A copper rod has a resistance of 40Ω at 00C and a resistance of 56Ω at 1000C. What is the temperature co-efficient of resistance of copper?

1. 2 x 10^-4 K^-1
2. 4 x 10^-3 K^-1
3. 4 x 10^-4 K^-1
4. 8 x 10^-4 K^-1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 61. As we move away from nucleus, the distance between the shells:

1. Remains same
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. Sometimes increase and sometime decreases

Q. 62. Which metal have least tendency to form a positive ion?

1. Aluminum
2. Calcium
3. Iron
4. Sodium

Q. 63. Detergents are:

1. Natural products
2. Synthetic products
3. Both A and B
4. None of above

Q. 64. Which gas is formed when ammonium chloride is heated with aqueous sodium hydroxide?

1. Ammonia
2. Chlorine
3. Hydrogen
4. Nitrogen

Q. 65. The atomic size of an atom is:

1. Greater than the positive ion
2. Smaller than the positive ion
3. Greater than the negative ion
4. Equal to covalent radius

Q. 66. If iron-sheet is dipped in a solution of zinc chloride and heated, then a layer of zinc is formed that protect iron from rusting. This process is called:

1. Anodizing
2. Chrome Plating
3. Galvanizing
4. Tin Plating

Q. 67. Silicon, a common element, is found rocks. Which of the following is mostly combined with the silicon?

1. Chorine
2. Oxygen
3. Carbon
4. Sulfur

Q. 68. The bonding that explains the variation of the boiling point of water from the boiling point of similarly structured molecule is:

1. Vander waals forces
2. Covalent bonding
3. Hydrogen bonding
4. Ionic bonding

Q. 69. Which of the following is called DIOL?

1. Glycerol
2. Glycol
3. Methanol
4. Ethanol

Q. 70. NaHCO₃ decomposes on heating. In an experiment, a 5 mol sample of NaHCO₃was heated. What volume of CO₂ will be yielded in the result of this experiment. Reaction is given as follows: 2NaHCO₃ → H₂O + CO₂

1. 24 dm³
2. 60 dm³
3. 35 dm³
4. 48 dm³

Q. 71. Raincidity involves:

1. Oxidation and reduction
2. Oxidation and hydrolysis
3. Hydrolysis and reduction
4. Reduction only

Q. 72. When glucose is heated with Fehling’s solution, the colour of the precipitate obtained is:

1. Black
2. Yellow
3. Red
4. White

Q. 73. A compound contains 75 % carbon and 25 % hydrogen by mass. What is the molecular formula of the compound?

1. CH₄
2. CH₃
3. C₂H₄
4. C₂H₆

Q. 74. Which one of the following is electron deficient?

1. NH₃
2. PH₃
3. BCl₃
4. PCl₃

Q. 75. In an acetyl molecule, two atoms of carbon are bonded by:

1. Two sigma bonds and two pi (π) bond
2. One sigma bond and one pi (π) bond
3. Two sigma bonds and one pi (π) bond
4. One sigma bonds and two pi (π) bond

Q. 76. Aqua -Regia is a mixture of HNO₃ and HCl mixed in ratio of:

1. 3 : 1
2. 1 : 3
3. 2 : 3
4. 3 : 4

Q. 77. The chemical reaction "CaCO_{3 (g)} → CaO _(g) + CO_{2 (g)}"   shows:

1. Reduction
2. Oxidation
3. No change in oxidation state
4. Both oxidation and reduction

Q. 78. When electric current passes through an aqueous solution, which one of the following ionic migration is correct?

1. H⁺ ions move towards anode
2. Cl^- ions move towards anode
3. Cl^- ions move towards cathode
4. Both move towards cathode

Q. 79. What is the structure associate with BF3 molecule?

1. Linear
2. Triangle
3. Trigonal Pyramidal
4. Tetrahedron

Q. 80. Metals lose electrons more easily than non-metals because of:

1. High ionization potential
2. High electron affinity
3. Low ionization potential
4. Low electron negativity

Q. 81. The correct formula of ‘Plaster of Paris’ is:

1. CaSO₄H₂O
2. CaSO₄2H₂O
3. CaSO₄3H₂O
4. CaSO₄. ½ H₂O

Q. 82. Yeast can be used to covert simple sugars into:

1. Ethanoic acid and oxygen
2. Ethanol and oxygen
3. Ethanol and carbon dioxide
4. Starch and carbon dioxide

Q. 83. Down’s cell is used for manufacturing sodium because:

1. Anode does not react with chlorine
2. Sodium floats on the fused sodium chloride
3. Graphite does not react with sodium
4. It is easy to fix graphite in circular form

Q. 84. Which type of isomerism is shown by the following compounds?

• CH₃-CH₂-O-CH₂-CH₃
• CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-O -CH₃

1. Position isomerism
2. Chain isomerism
3. Metamerism
4. Functional isomerism

Q. 85. Red lead commonly known as ‘Sandur’ is represented by formula:

1. PbO
2. Pb₃O₄
3. PbCrO₄
4. PbCO₃

Q. 86. What happens if a reaction is at equilibrium state and some more reactants is added in container?

1. The equilibrium will not be affected
2. The reverse reaction-rate will increase
3. The forward reaction-rate will increase
4. The forward reaction-rate will decrease

Q. 87. How much heat energy is required when 8 grams of hydrogen are burnt? The thermal reaction is: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O + 136.64 kcal

1. 273.56 kcal
2. 68.32 kcal
3. 136.64 kcal
4. 102.48 kcal

Q. 88. Which of the following is NOT a commonly occurring Sulfur compound?

1. H₂SO₄
2. H₂S
3. SO₃
4. SO₂

Q. 89. The most active non-metal has:

1. Medium electro-negativity
2. High electro-negativity
3. Low electro-negativity
4. Large atom radii

Q. 90. A compound, whose molecular mass is 90 grams, contains 40 % carbon, 6.67% hydrogen and 53.33% oxygen. What is the true formula of the compound?

1. CH₂O₄
2. C₃H₆O
3. C₃HO₃
4. C₂H₂O₄

ANSWERS
1.	C	31.	C	61.	C
2.	D	32.	A	62.	C
3.	C	33.	C	63.	B
4.	C	34.	B	64.	C
5.	B	35.	A	65.	B
6.	C	36.	C	66.	C
7.	B	37.	B	67.	B
8.	B	38.	C	68.	C
9.	D	39.	B	69.	B
10.	B	40.	B	70.	B
11.	C	41.	C	71.	B
12.	B	42.	D	72.	C
13.	B	43.	B	73.	A
14.	B	44.	C	74.	C
15.	C	45.	B	75.	D
16.	C	46.	C	76.	B
17.	B	47.	B	77.	C
18.	A	48.	C	78.	B
19.	B	49.	B	79.	B
20.	C	50.	D	80.	C
21.	B	51.	C	81.	D
22.	C	52.	B	82.	C
23.	B	53.	B	83.	B
24.	D	54.	C	84.	C
25.	A	55.	B	85.	B
26.	B	56.	C	86.	C
27.	C	57.	B	87.	A
28.	B	58.	C	88.	C
29.	C	59.	C	89.	B
30.	B	60.	B	90	C